新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语试卷真题

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一个省的高考难度高低,一般可以从一本线看出来。一本线越高,表明这个省的高考难度要高很多,而录取率越高,则难度越低。下面范文参考(www.hg9p.com)小编给大家带来新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语试卷真题,希望大家喜欢!

新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语试卷真题

本试卷共10页,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项:1.  答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2.  作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。

3.  非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁:考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays(60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for  this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%

Group Assignments(30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments(作业)during the  course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through  Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework(10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to  complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings  or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take  careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group  work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both  of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade  for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after  the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class  will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be  accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic  article.

22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due  date?

A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.

C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The  arugula(芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner.  But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I  stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even  worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with  what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste  goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover  story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from  “ugly"(but quite eatable)vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of  uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources  used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte  writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of  greenhouse gases in the world."

If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the  back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but  for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last  days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers  food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500  pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的)produce that  otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will  wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can  play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than  necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the  side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally  at times.

C. We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting  food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?

A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.

C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin's company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean  fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits D. It makes meals out of unwanted  food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents(居民)in care homes in London are being given hens to  look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织)to reduce loneliness and  improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients  suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have  reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She  said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast  each morning before I went to school.

"I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning  letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to  bed.

"It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their  children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.  I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something  useful."

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the  North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out  countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to  embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project  and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the  project can bring to people here."

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be  taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a  shared interest and creative activities."

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the  aged.

C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people's  welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of  achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong  personality.

30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.

C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m"  and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are  certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows  that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now  found in half the world's languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech  sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the  languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by  Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why  this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human  adults were aligned(对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are  formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to  an overbite structure(结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development  of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this  point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so  large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global  change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of  "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These  sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people  today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were  present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech  sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human  beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the  product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural  evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research  focus on?

A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its  development.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce  labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. Potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural  diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human  beings.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your  Workout Partner." One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone  is waiting for you at the gym," while another read: " 36 " With a workout  partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a  subtle(微妙)competition.

So, how do you find a workout partner?

First of all, decide what you want from that person. 37 Or do you just want  to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about  the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.

You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but  it probably won't result in a useful response. 38 If you plan on working out in  a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.

My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her  notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and  how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed  her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. 39

You and your partner will probably have different skills. 40 Over time,  both of you will benefit — your partner will be able to lift more weights and  you will become more physically fit. The core(核心)of your relationship is that  you will always be there to help each other.

A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.

B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.

C. You'll work harder if you train with someone else.

D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?

E. How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?

F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.

G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.

第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over  the past ten years.

Some of our 41 are funny, especially from the early years when our children  were little. Once, we 42 along Chalk Creek. I was 43 that our 15-month-old boy  would fall into the creek(小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near  to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was 44 , and his crying let the  whole campground know it. So 45 tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It  46 — he didn't end up in the creek. My three-year-old, however, did.

Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we  47 , but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly 48 our  peaceful morning trip. The 49 picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped  fishing to 50 the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No 51 . We were stuck in the  middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there 52 , a fisherman  pulled up, threw us a rope and towed(拖)us back. We were 53 .

Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are  filled with a sense of 54 , wondering what camping fun and 55 we will experience  next.

41. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries

42. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled

43. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried

44. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid

45. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for

46. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed

47. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off

48. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded

49. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed

50. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix

51. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal

52. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly

53. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right

54. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement

55. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict

第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda  National Park(GPNP). 56 (cover)an area about three times 57 size of Yellowstone  National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country.  The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that 58 (be)  previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant  pandas under one authority 59 (increase)effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies  in management.

After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next  year. The GPNP 60 (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the  authenticity and integrity(完整性)of natural ecosystems, preserving biological  diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, 61 leaving behind precious  natural assets(资产)for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve  connectivity between separate 62 (population)and homes of giant pandas, and 63  (eventual)achieve a desired level of population in the wild.

Giant pandas also serve 64 an umbrella species(物种), bringing protection to  a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of  China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species  65 live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the  ecosystem in the area.

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华,请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括:

1. 节目介绍;

2. 访谈的时间和话题。

注意:

1. 写作词数应为80左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Caroline,

 

 

 

Yours sincerely,

Li  Hua

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

It was the day of the big cross-country run. Students from seven different  primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the  route(路线)through thick evergreen forest.

I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off  to the side by a fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy  smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn't with the other  children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.

What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!

I quickly searched the crowd for the school's coach and asked him what had  happened. "I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him," he  explained uncomfortably. "I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him  decide."

I bit back my frustration(懊恼). I knew the coach meant well — he thought he  was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted,  I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side  as he swung his feet forward.

David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like  other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He  always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That  was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join  the cross-country team. It just took him longer — that’s all. David had not  missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the  other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the  school, I was familiar with the challenges David faced and was proud of his  strong determination.

注意:

1. 续写词数应为150左右;

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答.

Wesatdownnexttoeach other,butDavidwouldn'tlookatme.

 

 

 

I watched as David moved up to the starting line with  the other runners.

 

 

 

 

新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语试卷答案

本试卷共10页,满分120分。考试用时120分钟。

注意事项:1.  答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2.  作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。

3.  非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如高改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁:考试结束后,将试卷和符题卡一并交回。

第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)

第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A  15. C

第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)

16. C 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. F

第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分,满分15分)

21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. D 33.  C 34. D 35. B

第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分,满分15分)

36. Covering

37. the

38. were

39. to increase

40. is designed

41. and

42. populations

43. eventually

44. as

45. that

第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

【答案】Dear Caroline,

This is my first time that I have invited you to attend our program —Talk  and Talk. It is ten years since Talk and Talk was established. This is an  amazing program where you can share your ideas with students. Now, when having  trouble in learning English well, plenty of students urge to know how to deal  with it. As our distinguished foreign language teacher, your aid can help us a  lot. If you are available on this Sunday, I together with the whole Talk and  Talk staff am waiting for your coming. I’d appreciate it if you take my  invitation into consideration.

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节(满分25分)

47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

【答案】We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. I said  gently and quietly, “No one can change your mind, except yourself. If you desire  to challenge yourself, there is nothing to do with others’ thoughts.” He sat  still with a deep breath. “You have a full preparation before this event, which  is the most important reason why you show up here”, I added with a sincere tone.  Hearing my words, David turned to me tremblingly with tears spilling out of his  eyes and expressed he had made a firm determination to finish the cross-country  run. His coach heard what David said

and gave me a look—the kind that was more determined than anyone  else’s.

I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.  The race started. It seemed that the runway was extremely long for young  children, not to mention a child with a heart disease. David insisted on running  as if he had forgotten all his weaknesses, though he was tripped over within the  a few kilometers. It didn’t take long before he picked himself up again and  continued his mission. Classmates all appeared on the racing track, cheering for  him. “Come on! You can make it! We are proud of you!” they shouted  enthusiastically. To everyone’s joy, he reached the final line and ranked the  20th. It was no more important whether he won the first place or not. It was his  brave heart and strong faith that could make something unusual happen  finally.

高考难度变化趋势是什么

关于2022年高考难度,教育部官方文件原文回应:在保持命题总体稳定的前提下,优化试题情境设计,增加基础性、综合性、应用性、创新性,引导中学遵循教育规律,发展素质教育,助力学生健康成长、全面发展。

虽然原文并没有明确提出高考难度是否会下降,但就“保持命题总体稳定的前提下”这一说法,我们不难看出2022年高考难度系数或将继续保持0.6以上。通俗点讲,考生可以理解为考生的平均得分为10乘0.6等于6分(即10分高考命题,考生平均分可得6分左右)。

出于这样的考虑主要是处于公平因素的考虑,如果因为疫情而降低试题难度,一是不利于对考生综合性能力的考察,二是也不利于对考生的选拔。因此,考生以及家长要心中有数,切不可因为疫情,而寄希望要高考难度降低,当然即使高考难度有所降低,考生是否能够上一所好大学也是由考生排名决定,而不是由考生分数决定。

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